I'd like to ask the following question:
Why are physical noise processes (e.g. Johnson noise from a resistor) frequently assumed to be Gaussian processes? It seems that the central limit theorem, which says that the sum of many random variables is Gaussian distributed, is not enough, because a Gaussian process not only has $x(t)$ Gaussian distributed for each $t$, but also has $x(t_1)$ and $x(t_2)$ jointly Gaussian for any $t_1$ and $t_2$.
Is this question appropriate for this site? I posted a version of it on Physics Stack Exchange but I'd like to know if the users here would welcome this type of question in the future.